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2019年高考英语全国1卷及答案

绝密★启用前

2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

英语(Ⅰ卷)

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。例：How much is the shirt?

A. ￡19.15.

B. ￡9.18.

C. ￡9.15.

答案是C。

1. What will James do tomorrow?

A. Watch a TV program

B. Give a talk.

C. Write a report.

2. What can we say about the woman?

A. She’s generous.

B. She’s curious

C. She’s helpful.

3. When does the train leave?

A. At 6:30.

B. At 8:30.

C. At 10:30.

4. How does the woman go to work?

A. By car.

B. On foot.

C. By bike.

5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

A. Classmates.

B. Teacher and student

C. Doctor and patient.

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. What does the woman regret?

A. Giving up her research.

B. Dropping out of college.

C. Changing her major.

7. What is the woman interested in studying now?

A. Ecology.

B. Education.

C. Chemistry. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。

8. What is the man?

A. A hotel manager.

B. A tour guide.

C. A taxi driver.

9. What is the man doing for the woman?

A. Looking for some local foods.

B. Showing her around the seaside.

C. Offering information about a hotel.

听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. In an office.

B. At home.

C. At a restaurant.

11. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening?

A. Go to a concert.

B. Visit a friend.

C. Work extra hours.

12. Who is Alice going to call?

A. Mike.

B. Joan.

C. Catherine.

听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13. Why does the woman meet the man?

A. To look at an apartment.

B. To deliver some furniture.

C. To have a meal together.

14. What does the woman like about the carpet?

A. Its color.

B. Its design.

C. Its quality. 15. What does the man say about the kitchen?

A. It’s a good size.

B. It’s newly painted.

C.It’s equately equipped.

16. What will the woman probably do next?

A. Go downtown.

B. Talk with her friend.

C. Make payment.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. Who is the speaker probably talking to?

A. Movie fans.

B. News reporters.

C. College students.

18. When did the speaker take English classes?

A. Before he left his hometown. BAter he came to America C. When he was 15 years old.

19. How does the speaker feel about his teacher?

A. He’s proud.

B. He’s sympathetic.

C. He’s grateful.

20. What does the speaker mainly talk about?

A. How education shaped his life.

B. How his language skills improved.

C. How he managed his business well.

第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

Washington, D.C. Bicycle Tours

Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.

Duration: 3 hours

This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world-famous cherry trees with

beautiful flowers of Washington, D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees

and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability – and

the cherry blossoms – disappear!

Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour

Duration: 3 hours (4 miles)

Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington,

D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares unique

facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water.

Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.

Duration: 3 hours

Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D.C. newcomers and locals

looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort.

Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents,

Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route (路线) make

cycling between the sites fun and relaxing.

Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour

Duration: 3 hours (7 miles)

Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington,

D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capitol Hill and

the National Mall. Frequent stops are made for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts

and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with

reflective vests and safety lights.

21. Which tour do you need to book in advance?

A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.

B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour.

C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington,

D.C.

D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour.

22. What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour?

A. Meet famous people.

B. Go to a national park.

C. Visit well-known museums.

D. Enjoy interesting stories.

23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide?

A. City maps.

B. Cameras

C. Meals.

D. Safety lights.

Good Morning Britain’s Susanna Reid is used to grilling guests on the s ofa every

morning, but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role – showing families how to prepare

delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget.

In Save Money: Good Food, she visits a different home each week and with the help of

chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food waste, while preparing recipes for

under ￡5 per family a day. And the Good Morning Britain presenter says she’s been able to

put a lot of what she’s learnt into practice in her own home, preparing meals for sons, Sam, 14,

Finn, 13, and Jack, 11.

“We love Mexican churros, so I buy them on my phone from my local Mexican

takeaway restaurant,” she explains. “I pay ￡5 for a portion (一份), but Matt makes them for

26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and oil. Everybody can buy takeaway food,

but sometimes we’re not aware how cheaply we can make this food ourselves.”

The eight-part series (系列节目), Save Money: Good Food, follows in the footsteps of

ITV’s Save Money: Good Health, which gave viewers advice on how to get value from the

vast range of health products on the market.

With food our biggest weekly household expense, Susanna and Matt spend time with a

different family each week. In tonight’s Easter special they come to the aid of a family in need

of some delicio us inspiration on a budget. The team transforms the family’s long weekend of

celebration with less expensive but still tasty recipes.

24. What do we know about Susanna Reid?

A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests.

B. She has started a new programme.

C. She dislikes working early in the morning.

D. She has had a tight budget for her family.

25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna?

A. He buys cooking materials for her.

B. He prepares food for her kids.

C. He assists her in cooking matters.

D. He invites guest families for her.

26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4?

A. Summarize the previous paragraphs.

B. Provide some advice for the readers.

C. Add some background information.

D. Introduce a new topic for discussion.

27. What can be a suitable title for the text?

A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart

B. Balancing Our Daily Diet

C. Making Yourself a Perfect Chef

D. Cooking Well for Less

Languages have been coming and going for thousands of years, but in recent times there

has been less coming and a lot more going. When the world was still populated by

hunter-gatherers, small, tightly knit (联系) groups developed their own patterns of speech

independent of each other. Some language experts believe that 10,000 years ago, when the

world had just five to ten million people, they spoke perhaps 12,000 languages between them.

Soon afterwards, many of those people started settling down to become farmers, and

their languages too became more settled and fewer in number. In recent centuries, trade,

industrialisation, the development of the nation-state and the spread of universal compulsory

education, especially globalisation and better communications in the past few decades, all

have caused many languages to disappear, and dominant languages such as English, Spanish

and Chinese are increasingly taking over.

At present, the world has about 6,800 languages. The distribution of these languages is

hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have relatively few languages, often

spoken by many people, while hot, wet zones have lots, often spoken by small numbers.

Europe has only around 200 languages; the Americas about 1,000; Africa 2,400; and Asia and

the Pacific perhaps 3,200, of which Papua New Guinea alone accounts for well over 800. The

median number (中位数) of speakers is a mere 6,000, which means that half the world’s

languages are spoken by fewer people than that.

Already well over 400 of the total of 6,800 languages are close to extinction (消亡), with

only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busuu in Cameroon (eight remaining

speakers), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apache in the United States (two or three) or

Wadjigu in Australia (one, with a question-mark): none of these seems to have much chance

of survival.

28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times?

A. They developed very fast.

B. They were large in number.

C. They had similar patterns.

D. They were closely connected.

29. Which of the following best explains “dominant” underlined in paragraph 2?

A. Complex.

B. Advanced.

C. Powerful.

D. Modern.

30. How many languages are spoken by less than 6,000 people at present?

A. About 6,800.

B. About 3,400.

C. About 2,400.

D. About 1,200.

31. What is the main idea of the text?

A. New languages will be created.

B. People’s lifestyles are reflected in languages.

C. Human development results in fewer languages.

D. Geography determines language evolution.

We may think we’re a culture that gets rid of our worn technology at the first sight of something shiny and new, but a new study shows that we keep using our old devices (装置) well after they go out of style. That’s bad news for the environment– and our wallets – as these outdated devices consume much more energy than the newer ones that do the same things.

To figure out how much power these devices are using, Callie Babbitt and her colleagues at the Rochester Institute of Technology in New York tracked the environmental costs for each product throughout its life – from when its minerals are mined to when we stop using the device. This method provided a readout for how home energy use has evolved since the early 1990s. Devices were grouped by generation. Desktop computers, basic mobile phones, and box-set TVs defined 1992. Digital cameras arrived on the scene in 1997. And MP3 players, smart phones, and LCD TVs entered homes in 2002, before tablets and e-readers showed up in 2007.

As we accumulated more devices, however, we didn’t throw out our old ones.“The living-room television is replaced and gets planted in the kids’ room, and sudde nly one day, you have a TV in every room of the house,”said one researcher. The average number of electronic devices rose from four per household in 1992 to 13 in 2007. We’re not just keeping these old devices – we continue to use them. According to the analysis of Babbitt’s team, old desktop monitors and box TVs with cathode ray tubes are the worst devices with their energy consumption and contribution to greenhouse gas emissions (排放) more than doubling during the 1992 to 2007 window.

So what’s the soluti on (解决方案)? The team’s data only went up to 2007, but the researchers also explored what would happen if consumers replaced old products with new electronics that serve more than one function, such as a tablet for word processing and TV viewing. They found that more on-demand entertainment viewing on tablets instead of TVs and desktop computers could cut energy consumption by 44%.

32. What does the author think of new devices?

A. They are environment-friendly.

B. They are no better than the old.

C. They cost more to use at home.

D. They go out of style quickly.

33. Why did Babbitt’s team conduct the research?

A. To reduce the cost of minerals.

B. To test the life cycle of a product.

C. To update consumers on new technology.

D. To find out electricity consumption of the devices

34. Which of the following uses the least energy?

A. The box-set TV.

B. The tablet.

C. The LCD TV.

D.The desktop computer.

35. What does the text suggest people do about old electronic devices?

A. Stop using them.

B. Take them apart.

C. Upgrade them.

D. Recycle them.

第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Color is fundamental in home design –something you’ll always have in every room. A grasp of how to manage color in your spaces is one of the fi rst steps to creating rooms you’ll

love to live in. Do you want a room that’s full of life? Professional? Or are you just looking

for a place to relax after a long day? 36 , color is the key to making a room feel the

way you want it to feel.

Over the years, there have been a number of different techniques to help designers

approach this important point. 37 , they can get a little complex. But good news is that

there’re really only three kinds of decisions you need to make about color in your home: the

small ones, the medium ones, and the large ones.

38 . They’re the little spots of color like throw pillows, mirrors and baskets that

most of us use to add visual interest to our rooms. Less tiring than painting your walls and less

expensive than buying a colorful sofa, small color choices bring with them the significant

benefit of being easily changeable.

Medium color choices are generally furniture pieces such as sofas, dinner tables or

bookshelves. 39 . They require a bigger commitment than smaller ones, and they have

a more powerful effect on the feeling of a space.

The large color decisions in your rooms concern the walls, ceilings, and floors. Whether

you’re looking at wallpaper or paint, the time, effort and relative expense put into it are

significant. 40 .

A. While all of them are useful

B. Whatever you’re looking for

C. I f you’re experimenting with a color

D. Small color choices are the ones we’re most familiar with

E. It’s not really a good idea to use too many small color pieces

F. So it pays to be sure, because you want to get it right the first time

G. Color choices in this range are a step up from the small ones in two major ways

第三部分语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空

白处的最佳选项。

During my second year at the city college, I was told that the education department was

offering a “free” course, called Thinking Chess, for three credits. I 41 the idea of

taking the class because, after all, who doesn’t want to 42 a few dollars? More than that,

I’d always wanted to learn chess. And, even if I weren’t 43 enough about free credits,

news about our 44 was appealing enough to me. He was an international grandmaster,

which 45 I would be learning from one of the game’s46 . I could hardly wait to

47 him.

Maurice Ashley was kind and smart, a former graduate returning to teach, and this

48 was no game for him; he meant business. In his introduction, he made it 49

that our credits would be hard-earned. In order to 50 the class, among other criteria, we

had to write a paper on how we plan to 51 what we would learn in class to our future

professions and, 52 , to our lives. I managed to get an A in that 53 and learned life

lessons that have served me well beyond the 54 .

Ten years after my chess class with Ashley, I’m still putting to use what he 55 me:

“The absolute most important 56 that you learn when you play chess is how to make

good 57 . On every single move you have to 58 a situation, process what your

opponent (对手) is doing and 59 the best move from among all your options.” These

words still ring true today in my 60 as a journalist.

41. A. put forward B. jumped at C. tried out D.turned down

42. A. waste B. earn C. save D. pay

43. A. excited B. worried C. moved D. tired

44. A. title B. competitor C. textbook D. instructor

45. A. urged B. demanded C. held D. meant

46. A. fastest B. easiest C. best D. rarest

47. A. interview B. meet C. challenge D. beat

48. A. chance B. qualification C. honor D. job

49. A. real B. perfect C. clear D. possible

50. A. attend B. pass C. skip D. observe

51. A. add B. expose C. apply D. compare

52. A. eventually B. naturally C. directly D. normally

53. A. game B. presentation C. course D. experiment

54. A. criterion B. classroom C. department D. situation

55. A. taught B. wrote C. questioned D. promised

56. A. fact B. step C. manner D. skill

57. A. grades B. decisions C. impressions D. comments

58. A. analyze B. describe C. rebuild D. control

59. A. announce B. signal C. block D. evaluate

60. A. role B. desire C. concern D. behavior

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

According to a review of evidence in a medical journal, runners live three years 61

(long) than non-runners. Y ou don’t have to run fast or for long 62 (see) the benefit. You

may drink, smoke, be overweight and still reduce your risk of 63 (die) early by running.

While running regularly can’t make you live forever, the review says it 64 (be)

more effective at lengthening life 65 walking, cycling or swimming. Two of the authors

of the review also made a study published in 2014 66 showed a mere five to 10 minutes

a day of running reduced the risk of heart disease and early deaths from all 67 (cause).

The best exercise is one that you enjoy and will do. But otherwise … it’s probably

running. To avoid knee pain, you can run on soft surfaces, do exercises to 68 (strength)

your leg muscles (肌肉), avoid hills and get good running shoes. Running is cheap, easy and

it’s always 69 (energy). If you are time poor, you need run for only half the time to get

the same benefits as other sports, so perhaps we should all give 70 a try.

第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit my grandparents.

I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with

dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when I went here again, they had a big separate

house to raise dozens of chicken. They also had a small pond which they raised fish. My

grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their life

had improved. At the end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two

years, but he agreed.

第二节书面表达（满分25分）

假定你是李华，你的新西兰朋友Terry将去中国朋友家做客，发邮件向你询问有关

习俗。请你回复邮件，内容包括：

1．到达时间；2．合适的礼物；3．餐桌礼仪。

注意：1．词数100左右；2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

**************************************************************************

考试机构工作人员注意：以下内容不能印在试卷上。

请将“Dear Terry,”按下面格式打印在答题卡上相应的区域。请将“Best, Li Hua”按下

面格式放在底端。

Dear Terry,

Best,

Li Hua

英语试题参考答案

第一部分听力

1. B

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. A

6. B

7. A

8. B

9. C 10. C

11. A 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. C

16. B 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. A

第二部分阅读理解

21. A 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. C

26. C 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. B

31. C 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. A

36. B 37. A 38. D 39. G 40. F

第三部分语言知识运用

41. B 42. C 43. A 44. D 45. D

46. C 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. B

51. C 52. A 53. C 54. B 55. A

56. D 57. B 58. A 59. D 60. A

61. longer 62. to see 63. dying 64. is 65. than 66. that/which 67. causes 68. strengthen 69. energetic 70. it/running

第四部分写作

第一节

During my last winter holiday, I went to∧countryside with my father to visit

the

my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were

found

living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when

other

I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken. They also

there chickens

had a small pond∧which they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned in或where

quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their life had improved. At the end of selling happy

our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but he agreed.

and

第二节（略）

2017年高考全国1卷英语试题(卷)[含答案]

绝密★启用前 2016年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语本试题卷共12页，全卷满分150分，考试用时120分钟。祝考试顺利注意事项： 1、答题前，先将自己的、号填写在试题卷和答题卡上，并将号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。用2B铅笔将答题卡上试卷类型A后的方框涂黑。 2、选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 3、非选择题的作答：用签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 4、考试结束后，请将本试题卷和答题卡一并上交。第I卷第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，现将答案标在试卷上。录音容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节（共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一题。每段对话仅读一遍。例：How much is shirt?

A.￡19.15 B. ￡9.18 C. ￡9.15 答案是C。 1.What are the speakers talking about? A.Having a birthday party. B.Doing some exercise. C.Getting Lydia a gift. 2.What is the woman going to do? A.Help the man. B.Take a bus. C.Get a camera. 3.What does the woman suggest the man do? A.Tell Kate to stop. B.Call Kate’s friends. C.Stay away from Kate. 4.Where does the conversation probably take place? A.In a wine shop B.In a supermarket C.In a restaurant. 5.what does the woman mean? A.Keep the windows closed. B.Go out for fresh air. C.Turn on the fan.

2019年高考英语全国卷1

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(完整word版)2018年高考英语全国1卷及答案.doc

绝密★启用前 2018 年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语 (Ⅰ卷 ) 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30 分）第一节（共5小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分7.5 分）听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A 、 B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。例：How much is the shirt? A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15. 答案是 C。 1. What will James do tomorrow? A. Watch a TV program B. Give a talk. C. Write a report. 2. What can we say about the woman? A. She’s generous. B. She’s curious C. She’s helpful. 3. When does the train leave? A. At 6:30. B. At 8:30. C. At 10:30. 4. How does the woman go to work? A. By car. B. On foot. C. By bike. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student C. Doctor and patient. 第二节（共15小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分）听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、 B 、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第 6 段材料，回答第6、7 题。 6. W hat does the woman regret? A. Giving up her research. B. Dropping out of college. C. Changing her major. 7. W hat is the woman interested in studying now? A. Ecology. B. Education. C. Chemistry. 听第 7 段材料，回答第8、9 题。 8. W hat is the man? A. A hotel manager. B. A tour guide. C. A taxi driver. 9.What is the man doing for the woman? A. Looking for some local foods. B. Showing her around the seaside. C. Offering information about a hotel. 听第 8 段材料，回答第10 至 12 题。 10. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. At home. C. At a restaurant. 11. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening? A. Go to a concert. B. Visit a friend. C. Work extra hours. 12. Who is Alice going to call? A. Mike. B. Joan. C. Catherine. 听第 9 段材料，回答第13 至 16 题。 13. Why does the woman meet the man? A. To look at an apartment. B. To deliver some furniture. C. To have a meal together. 14. What does the woman like about the carpet? A. Its color. B. Its design. C. Its quality. 15. What does the man say about the kitchen? A. It ’s a good size. B. It ’s newly painted. C.It ’s equately equipped. 16. What will the woman probably do next? A. Go downtown. B. Talk with her friend. C. Make payment. 听第 10 段材料，回答第17 至 20 题。 17. Who is the speaker probably talking to? A. Movie fans. B. News reporters. C. College students. 18. When did the speaker take English classes? A. Before he left his hometown. BAter he came to America C. When he was 15 years old. 19. How does the speaker feel about his teacher? A. He ’s proud. B. He’s sympathetic. C. He’s grateful. 20.What does the speaker mainly talk about? A. How education shaped his life. B. How his language skills improved. C. How he managed his business well. 第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40 分）第一节（共15小题；每小题 2 分，满分 30 分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A 、B、 C 和 D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Washington, D.C. Bicycle Tours Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration: 3 hours This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world-famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington, D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability –and the cherry blossoms –disappear! Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours (4 miles) Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration: 3 hours Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D.C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents, Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route (路线) make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours (7 miles) Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington, D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capitol Hill and the National Mall. Frequent stops are made for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights. 21.Which tour do you need to book in advance? A.Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. B.Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour. C.Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. D.Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour. 22.What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour? A. Meet famous people. B. Go to a national park. C. Visit well-known museums. D. Enjoy interesting stories. 23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide? A. City maps. B. Cameras C. Meals. D. Safety lights. B Good Morning Britain ’ Susanna Reid is used to morning, but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget. In Save Money: Good Food , she visits a different h chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food w under￡5per family a day. And the Good Morning Brit put a lot of what she’ s learnt into practice in her Finn, 13, and Jack, 11. “ Welove Mexican churros, so I buy them on m takeaway restaurant,” she explains.“ I payo 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and but sometimes we’ re not aware how cheaply we ca The eight-part series ( 系列节目 ), Save Money: Go ITV ’ sSave Money: Good Health , which gave viewers vast range of health products on the market. With food our biggest weekly household expense, S different family each week. In tonight’ s Easte of some delicious inspiration on a budget. The team tran celebration with less expensive but still tasty recipes. 24. What do we know about Susanna Reid? A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests. C. She dislikes working early in the morning. D. She 25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna? A. He buys cooking materials for her. C. He assists her in cooking matters. 26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4? A. Summarize the previous paragraphs.B C. Add some background information. D. 27. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart C. Making Yourself a Perfect Chef C Languages have been coming and going for thous has been less coming and a lot more going. When th gatherers, small, tightly knit ( 联系) groups deve independent of each other. Some language experts be world had just five to ten million people, they spoke perh Soon afterwards, many of those people started set languages too became more settled and fewer in numbe industrialisation, the development of the nation-state and education, especially globalisation and better communic have caused many languages to disappear, and domina and Chinese are increasingly taking over. At present, the world has about 6,800 languages. T hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have many people, while hot, wet zones have lots, often spok around 200 languages; the Americas about 1,000; Africa 3,200, of which Papua New Guinea alone accounts for w 数 ) of speakers is a mere 6,000, which means that half fewer people than that. Already well over 400 of the total of 6,800 language only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busuu speakers), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apache i Wadjigu in Australia (one, with a question-mark): none o survival. 28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gather A. They developed very fast.

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【解析】根据倒数第二段中的"Adeline couldn't understand.…missed my brother more and more...the only thing we had left"可知，这枚紫心勋章代表着Adeline对在战场上牺牲的兄弟的深切怀念和记忆，故选 D项。 B 【文章大意】文章介绍了Tyler Bridges发起的一个项目，让有能力的人捐助钱财，让需要的人自取钱财，而这个项目的宗旨是让人们能够互相帮助。 24.【答案】C 【解析】根据下文的内容并结合木板上写的"Give What You Can, Take What You Need"可知，附在木板上的钱是可以随意取的，并不附带任何条件，故选C项。【考点】句意理解 25.【答案】B 【解析】根据第二段的内容，尤其是"People of all ages, races..…even had a bride"可推知，作者提到新娘参与该活动来说明参与人员的多样性，故选B项。【考点】推理判断 26.【答案】D 【解析】根据倒数第二段第一句中的"Bridges said the only goal was to show generosity and sympathy"并结合全文内容可知，Bridges开展这个活动的目的在于传递“慷慨和同情之心”，故选D项。【考点】细节理解 C 【文章大意】文章主要讲述了美国加利福尼亚州的森林中大树急剧减少的现象，并分析了其原因。 27.【答案】A 【解析】根据文章第二段中"The number of trees...declined by 50 percent...more than 55 percent (75) percent"提到的数字可知，该段主要描述了加州森林中大树急剧减少的严重性，故选A项。【考点】段落大意 28.【答案】D 【解析】根据第三段中的"Aggressive wildfire control..…compete with big trees for resources(资源)“可知，声势浩大的森林防火措施虽然一定程度上保护了森林，但同时也导致小树泛滥，与大树争抢资源，从而导致大树数量减少，故选D项。【考点】推理判断 29.【答案】C 【解析】根据最后一段中的"Since the 1930s, Mclntyre said.…have been rising temperatures...reduces the water supply"可知，Mclntyre认为水资源短缺的主要原因是逐渐上升的气温，故选C项。【考点】细节理解 30.【答案】A 【解析】根据全文可知，文章主要讲述了美国加州森林中大树数量急剧下降的现象，并分析了其原

2018年高考英语真题(新课标全国一卷)有答案

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