高三英语周末自主测试
高三英语周末自主测试
2020 0903
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What will the man probably do after the conversation？
A.Wait there.
B. Sit down.
C. Find a man.
2.Who are the speakers talking about ?
A. An actor.
B. A writer.
C. A waiter.
3. Where does the conversation take place？
A. At an airport
B. On a bus
C. On a plane.
4. When will the woman leave for New York？
A. On Monday.
B. On Tuesday.
C. On Wednesday.
5. Why is the man worried？
A. There will be a test tomorrow.
B. He has a lot of homework to do.
C. The woman is unwilling to help him.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What did the man buy in Xi＇an？
A. An ancient jar.
B. A wonderful knife.
C. A set of china.
7. When will the woman go to the man＇s house？
A. This Saturday evening.
B. This Sunday evening.
C. Next Saturday evening.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题
8. When is Alice's birthday?
A.Tomorrow.
B. The day after tomorrow.
C.The day before yesterday.
9. What will the man and the woman buy for Alice?
A. Some flowers B . A record. C. Some chocolates.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题
10.How many ties does the man have at least?
A. Four.
B. Five
C. Six.
11. Where did the man put his green tie?
A. On the desk
B. In the box
C. In his drawer.
12. What can we learn about Sue?"
A.She will meet the Johnsons.
B. She will go to the party.
C. She will look after the children.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. What is Mr. Smith?
A. A teacher.
B. A writer.
C. A bookseller.
14. How many books do the speakers plan to buy?
A. Two.
B. Three
C. Five
15. What is the speakers' main problem with the books?
A.The books cost too much.
B. The books are difficult to read.
C. They want the same book
16. What does the girl suggest they do?
A. They buy their favorite books.
B. They each pay half of the cost.
C. They spend fifty dollars on the books.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. When did the couple go to London?
A. Last spring.
B. Last summer.
C. Last autumn.
18. How did the couple get around in London?
A. By taxi.
B. By bus.
C. On foot.
19. Which place didn't they go to during their stay in London?
A. Buckingham Palace.
B. The British Museum.
C. The National Gallery.
20. What is their favorite in London?
A. Having good meals.
B. Going shopping.
C. Going to the theatre.
第一部分阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
National Park Association of Queensland Activities
Vegetation Management Group
Saturday 14th March 2020
Location: Jolly’ s Lookout carpark, D’Aguilar National Park
Leader: Angus McElnea (0429854446 or gus mcelnea@https://www.docsj.com/doc/a57650455.html,)
Get your hands dirty! Come and spend a couple of hours to help with lantana (a type of flowering plant) control and revegetation(植被再造) work in the Boombana and Jolly’s Lookout areas of D’Aguilar National Park, west of Brisbane.
Wynnum North Boardwalk
Sunday 15th March 2020
Location: Wynnum North Boardwalk
Leader: Jocelyn Dixon (0733788486)
Fee: $5(members) $10(non-members)
Join with us to view the water and bush birds of this area. A track from Wynnum North Road leads to a secret place for viewing a diverse mix of birds walking around in water. From there we will take a short walk to the Mangrove Boardwalk.
May Long Weekend Camp
Saturday 2nd May to Monday 4th May 2020
Leader: Tony Parsons (0433224544)
Join us for a long weekend in Border Rangers National Park, camping at Sheep Station Creek campground. Spend the days exploring the national park, and evenings around the campfire. We will have the chance to view Mt Warning from the Pinnacle at sunrise and sunset. Bring your family and stay for the weekend or come down for a day. It will be enjoyable.
Central West Qld National Parks
Saturday 29th August to Sunday 6th September 2020
Leader: Wendy Bell(0733002473)
Exciting opportunity to visit and explore at least six national parks in the comfort of a big coach and be accommodated, rather than camping. Basic cost of the tour is $3, 400 per person. Total cost includes all transport, all meals, and activity fees.
21. Who will you call if you are interested in bird-watching?
A. Angus McElnea.
B. Jocelyn Dixon.
C. Tony Parsons.
D. Wendy Bell.
22. In which of the activities will a fire be built?
A. May Long Weekend Camp.
B. Wynnum North Boardwalk.
C. Vegetation Management Group.
D. Central West Qld National Parks.
23. How is Central West Qld National Parks different from the other activities?
A. It is a weekend activity.
B. Lots of walking is involved.
C. The organizer provides the transport.
D. Visitors have to bring their own food.
B
George Nakashima always insisted that he was a simple woodworker, not an artist. Even though major museums exhibited his works and the director of the American Craft Museum called him a national treasure, Mr Nakashima rejected the label of artist. For almost fifty years he simply went on shaping wood into beautiful chairs, tables, and cabinets.
Nakashima had a clear goal. He intended each piece of furniture he made to be as perfect as possible. Even making a box was an act of creation, because it produced an
object that had never existed before. Initially Nakashima used local wood, sometimes from his own property. Later, he traveled to seek out English oak, Persian walnut, African zebra wood and Indian teak. He especially liked to find giant roots that had been dug out of the ground after a tree was taken down. Nakashima felt that making this wood into furniture was a way of allowing the tree to live again.
Most furniture makers prefer perfect boards, but Nakashima took pleasure in using wood with interesting knots (节疤)and cracks. These irregularities gave the wood personality and showed that the tree had lived a happy life.
He never failed to create an object that was both useful and beautiful. One early piece Nakashima designed was a three-legged chair for his small daughter, Mira, to use when she sat at the table for meals. The Mira chair became so popular that Nakashima later made both low and high versions. Another famous piece, the Conoid chair, has two legs supported by bladelike feet. Always, Nakashima's designs were precise and graceful, marked by a simplicity that revealed his love for the wood.
As the years passed, Nakashima's reputation grew and his work received many awards. His children Mira and Kevin, now adults, joined the team of crafts - people in their father's studio. Nakashima's dream of integrating work and family had come true.
24. Which of the following best describes Nakashima?
A. Generous and outgoing.
B. Honest and simple.
C. Capable and friendly.
D. Creative and modest.
25. Why was Nakashima called a national treasure?
A. His art work made trees live again.
B. He used precious wood materials.
C. His chairs were beautifully designed.
D. He was devoted to making furniture.
26. What can we learn about Nakashima from the last two paragraphs?
A. He loved his work and family.
B. He made chairs of the same style.
C. He sought for a simple life and art.
D. He was lost in researching the wood.
27. What can be inferred about Mira and Kevin?
A. They had an art studio of their own.
B. They still lacked the ability to create art works.
C. They had a common interest with their father.
D. They enjoyed the same reputation with their father.
C
Playing tennis regularly could help keep people off death, but football, rugby and running may not help people to live longer, a study suggests.
A study followed more than 80,000 people for an average of nine years to find out if certain sports protected them against early death. It found that people who played racket sports regularly were the least likely to die over the study period, reducing their individual risk by 47 percent compared with people who did no exercise. Swimmers also reduced their chance of death by 28 percent, aerobics (有氧运动) fans by 27 percent and cyclists by 15 percent. Yet running appeared to have no impact at all on dying early, and neither did playing football or rugby.
Scientists say the difference may lie in the social aspect which goes alongside sports like tennis and squash (壁球), which often involve clubs and organized activities outside of the game. It means that people often have larger social net-works and tend to keep up activities into later life, both of which are proven to be good for health.
In contrast, people who play team sports often do not move onto a new sport once their teams break up for family, or injury reasons. They become watchers rather than participants in their chosen activity.
The researchers found that playing racket sports was associated with a 56 percent lower risk from heart death. Similarly, swimmers lowered their heart disease or stroke risk by 41 percent, and people who took part in activities like aerobics, dance or gymnastics lowered their risk by 36 percent. But again running, football and rugby had no significant impact on heart deaths.
However, other experts argue that this study must not be misinterpreted as showing that running and football do not protect against heart disease. In this study both runners and footballers had a lower rate of death from heart disease.
28. Which sport has hardly any impact on protecting people against early death?
A. Cycling.
B. Swimming.
C. Rugby.
D. Tennis.
29. According to the study, which makes a big difference in keeping healthy?
A. Playing basketball with their friends occasionally.
B. Watching football games every day.
C. Taking up gymnastics and joining a club.
D. Doing running in the park every day.
30. What is considered more important to people's health?
A. Social networks.
B. Staying at home.
C. Physical examinations.
D. Setting up families.
31. What is the main idea of the text?
A. Thousands of people participated in a 9-year research.
B. Study finds playing tennis helps people live longer.
C. It is wrong to say running has no impact on heart disease.
D. There are differences between racket sports and team games.
D
Instagram（图片分享社交应用程序）is about to take its biggest step toward removing likes from its platform. After months of testing an option to hide likes in select international markets, Instagram, which is owned by Facebook(FB), has already been testing hiding likes in seven other countries, including Canada, Ireland and Australia. For years, likes have been central to how celebrities, brands, politicians and everyday users experience Instagram and Facebook. It's a way of measuring popularity and success. But in recent months, Instagram has been rethinking how likes contribute to making its platform more toxic. Now it's considering a change.
The total number of likes on posts — which appear as hearts on the app ——will disappear from Instagram's main feed, profile pages and permalink(永久链接) pages. The owner of the account can still see their own likes, but their followers won't know the count.
CNN Business previously spoke with users in countries with the test. The majority felt this move would improve well-being on the app. Instagram is the most detrimental(不利的) social networking app for young people's mental health, such as negatively impacting body image, according to one study.
But other users and psychologists said hiding likes won't fix everything. The test doesn't address some of the key ways that activity on Instagram can impact the
well-being of users, including bullying, feeling left out and thinking other people's lives are better than their own.
Renee Engeln, a psychology professor at Northwestern University, voiced his opinion that the biggest impact of Instagram is the content and the exposure to this constant stream of perfected images is what seems to hurt psychologically. Plus, users can still see their own likes ——and feel badly if their posts don't perform well.
32. How do users experience Instagram in this passage?
A. By giving likes.
B. By hiding likes.
C. By selecting platforms.
D. By showing off talents.
33. What does the underlined word “toxic” in Paragraph 1 mean?
A. Profitable.
B. Poisonous.
C. Popular.
D. Positive.
34. What can we infer from the passage?
A. Instagram has affected youngsters' mental health.
B. The account owners won't know the count o￡ likes.
C. Instagram tested hiding likes in seven countries first.
D. The majority think Instagram has been a well-being app.
35. What could be the best title of the passage?
A. Instagram Misuses Likes
B. More People Are Against Likes
C. Likes Cause Mental Problems
D. Likes will Be Hidden on Instagram
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Making other people feel good feels good, and, best of all, it requires little more than a generous heart. Studies show that people feel happier when they do something kind for another person, and both recipients and good deed-doers can get the benefits. It can't be smarter idea to create this World Kindness Day. 36
Learn a friend's language. Y ou care and take an interest in their experiences.
Making someone feel included and respected will feel a greater sense of belonging, an essential component of happiness.
37 . Reaching out to someone for the first time in a long time can be an instant remedy(治疗) for whatever trouble you. It's as simple as a text, a note or a Face Time call. Let someone know you're thinking of them, even after some time apart. Studies suggest strong bonds can improve physical health, too.
Genuinely compliment(赞扬) someone. A respectful comment that comes from the heart about someone's unique hair style, excellent performance in a conceit or their great solution to a problem at work might be all it takes to improve someone's mood.
38
Collect trash you see around your neighborhood. Picking up trash and recyclables off the street beautifies your community and benefits the environment.
39 The environment can't clean itself, after all!
Thank the people in your life.They are the security guard outside of your workplace, the supermarket worker you see every day, your mom. 40 Thank people for the things, big and small, that they do that improve your life. Gratitude is priceless.
A. Others' positive words could help some people be a bit kinder to themselves, too.
B. If your friends are overweight, that too ups the odds you'll pack on pounds.
C. Open your heart with some small, free ways to make someone's day.
D. Without their help, your world might not rim as efficiently.
E. It might even inspire others to take up the task with you.
F. Reconnect with a friend or family member.
G. Have an eye contact with friends.
第二部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
You just can’t imagine what a brave mother is like. She was a mother of three, who
just 41 an earthquake, couldn’t tell if her children were 42 for help. Or what if you kn ew you couldn’t yell at her for help because she couldn’t 43 you? That was what happened to Connie and her three children 44 the 6.1-magnitude earthquake rocked Napa, California. Connie is 45 and communicates with her children using sign language.
At midnight, Connie and her three children were 46 on the first floor of their two-story home. She and her 16-year-old son, Juan, were shaken awake. Instantly, they realized there were no disaster supplies downstairs. Connie, also 47 one-month-old Raul and 8-year-old Adriana, called Juan to come close to her in the darkness and 48 for him to go upstairs to get a 49 .
Juan slowly 50 the stairs. He heard a loud creak (嘎吱声). Arriving on the top floor, he moved quickly but 51 to get what he needed. Using the flashlight to guide his steps back 52 the stairs, the family was able to take a few items from the first floor and 53 . Their home was almost in ruins.
Being deaf was not deterrent (妨碍物) for this 54 mother. The family made it to the 55 safely, which comforted everyone.
41.A. experienced B. dreamed C. avoided D. reported
42.A. turning around B. standing by C. running away D. crying out
43.A. see B. hear C. forgive D. reach
44.A.when B. after C. unless D. before
45. A. blind B. deaf C. old D. sick
46. A. alone B. awake C. alive D. asleep
47.A. chatting to B. playing with C. focusing on D. running after
48.A. signed B.phoned C. shouted D. explained
49.A. helper B. flashlight C. box D. suitcase
50.A. mopped B. examined C. climbed D. left
51.A. carefully B. regularly C. bravely D. hurriedly
52.A. up B. above C. under D. down
53.A. stay B. return C. flee D. cry
54.A. famous B. skillful C. ordinary D. determined
55.A. darkness B. shelter C. ruins D. stairs
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
How to prevent being infected with the virus? There are a number of standard hygiene (卫生) practices 56 have been recommended to protect against infection and 57 (far) spread. These include covering your mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing with a medical mask, tissue or flexed elbow; avoiding contacting with those who are unwell 58 (close); the appropriate use of masks and personal protective 59 (equip), especially in a healthcare setting; washing hands regularly with water and soap, 60 alcohol-based hand sanitizer (洗手液). 61 (action) that can be taken to prevent infection from an animal source include: avoiding unnecessary unprotected contact with animals; washing hands after contact with animals or animal products; and ensuring that animal products are cooked thoroughly before they 62 (consume).
It is important 63 (stay) home if you’re feeling unwell. But if you have a fever, cough, and difficulty 64 (breath), seek medical care early and share your previous travel history 65 your healthcare provider.
第三部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节应用文写作(满分15分)
假定你是李华，你的美国笔友Charlie对中国文化很感兴趣。他和家人将于今年农历新年来中国旅游，请你给他写一封电子邮件，内容包括：
1．欢迎他们来中国；
2．旅行前的准备。
注意：
1．词数80左右；
2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Charlie
Yours，
Li Hua
第二节(满分25 分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。续写的词数应为150左右。
Arthur was messy. He d idn't try to make messes, but he didn’t try to clean up much, either. There were always small pieces of food on the table when he was done eating. His socks never made it into the hamper(洗衣篮). And he only picked up his toys when Mom threatened to throw them away. Most days, Mom followed Arthur around the house and cleaned up after him. She brushed the crumbs（碎屑）into her hand and threw them away after meals. She picked up his socks and made sure they got washed, dried and folded neatly before going back in the drawer. She often picked up his toys when he left them to do something else.
One day, Mom asked Arthur to pick up his toy trains. “Not right now,” Arthur said. He was reading a comic book. The trains had been on the living room floor since the morning.“You know what, Arthur? I'm not going to ask you again. I'm done cleaning today.” And with that. Mom put her feet up on the sofa and picked up a book to read.
At dinner time, Arthur noticed that there was a big pile of crumbs at his place at the table. Mom's spot was nice and clean. Arthur didn't like the crumbs very much. After dinner, Arthur's feet felt cold. He went to his room and opened his drawer, but the drawer was empty. "Mom, where are my socks?" Arthur called.
"There weren't any socks in your hampe r, so I didn't wash them,” Mom said. Arthur felt unhappy. Now his feet would be cold, unless he wanted to wear dirty socks from the floor. He decided to stay barefoot.
When it was time for bed, Arthur said good night to Mom and turned to go upstairs. Arthu r stepped right on his toy train in his bare feet. “Ouch!” cried Arthur. “That really
hurt!”
Paragraph 1: However, Mom was still reading and said nothing ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2: “Mom? “ said Arthur. “ Tomorrow can you show me how to do the
英语答题纸
班级___________ 姓名____________ 总分数_______________
听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5_________ 6-10________11-15__________ 16-20 ___________ 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21-23________24-27_________28-31__________32-35___________
七选五36-40_______________
完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45_____________ 46-50__________ 51-55_____________
语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. _______ 57. ________ 58.________ 59. _______60.________ 61.________ 62._________ 63. ________ 64. _______65________ 书面表达（共15分）
___________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
Yours
Li Hua
续写部分
Paragraph 1
___________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2
_____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________
高三英语周末自主测试答案
听力部分1--5 BACCA 6--10 ABABA 11--15 BCACA 16--20 BCCBC
第一部分阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题2.5分，满分50分）
21.--23 B A C 24.--27 D A AC 28.--31 C C A B 32--35 .A B A D
第二节36--40 C F A E D
第二部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41.--45 A .D B A B 46.--50 D C A B C 51.--55 A D C D B
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
56.t hat /which 57. further 58. closely 59. equipment 60. or
61.Actions 62. are consumed 63. to say 64. breathing 65. with
第三部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【参考范文】
Dear Charlie
I'm delighted to know you are coming to China with your family during the Chinese Lunar New Year，which is a great chance for you to experience Chinese culture personally.Here I am writing to offer you some advice.
It would be a good idea if you could make some preparations before your travel.First of all，learn some simple Chinese，especially the daily expressions，which makes it easier for you to communicate with the locals wherever you go.Besides，to get yourself familiar with some Chinese local customs and traditions may help you behave properly during your stay.
I hope you will find my advice helpful.Wish you a pleasant journey in China.
Yours，
Li Hua
第二节(满分25 分)
Paragraph 1
However, Mom was still reading and said nothing. Arthur wasn’t sure if she had heard him or not so he called for help again, but still Mom didn’t come. Then Arthur realized maybe it was he that could solve his problem at that very moment. He quietly picked up the toy train and put it in the box. It only took a minute for him to put the toy away, and now he wouldn’t have to worry about hurting his feet again.
Paragraph 2
“Mom?” said Arthur. “Tomorrow can you show me how to do the laundry so I can wash my socks?” “Of course,” said Mom. “It’s nice to see you begin to learn to take care of yourself. I am always here to do whatever I can to help you become a more independent boy.” Arthur felt better. He didn’t want to wait until the next laundry day to hav e clean socks again. Maybe being neat wasn’t so hard after all.