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2019年高考英语(全国I卷)试题及答案

2019年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）

做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt?

A. ￡19.15.

B. ￡9.18.

C. ￡9.15.

答案是C。

1. What will James do tomorrow?

A. Watch a TV program.

B. Give a talk.

C. Write a report.

2. What can we say about the woman?

A. She’s generous.

B. She’s curious.

C. She’s helpful.

3. When does the train leave?

A. At 6:30.

B. At 8:30.

C. At 10:30.

4. How does the woman go to work?

A. By car.

B. On foot.

C. By bike.

5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

A. Classmates.

B. Teacher and student.

C. Doctor and patient.

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. What does the woman regret?

A. Giving up her research.

B. Dropping out of college.

C. Changing her major.

7. What is the woman interested in studying now?

A. Ecology.

B. Education.

C. Chemistry.

听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。

8. What is the man?

A. A hotel manager.

B. A tour guide.

C. A taxi driver.

9. What is the man doing for the woman?

A. Looking for some local foods.

B. Showing her around the seaside.

C. Offering information about a hotel.

听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. In an office.

B. At home.

C. At a restaurant.

11. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening?

A. Go to a concert.

B. Visit a friend.

C. Work extra hours.

12. Who is Alice going to call?

A. Mike.

B. Joan.

C. Catherine.

听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13. Why does the woman meet the man?

A. To look at an apartment.

B. To deliver some furniture.

C. To have a meal together.

14. What does the woman like about the carpet?

A. Its color.

B. Its design.

C. Its quality.

15. What does the man say about the kitchen?

A. It’s a good size.

B. It’s newly painted.

C. It’s adequately equipped.

16. What will the woman probably do next?

A. Go downtown.

B. Talk with her friend.

C. Make payment.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. Who is the speaker probably talking to?

A. Movie fans.

B. News reporters.

C. College students.

18. When did the speaker take English classes?

A. Before he left his hometown.

B. After he came to America.

C. When he was 15 years old.

19. How does the speaker feel about his teacher?

A. He’s proud.

B. He’s sympathetic.

C. He’s grateful.

20. What does the speaker mainly talk about?

A. How education shaped his life.

B. How his language skills improved.

C. How he managed his business well.

第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

Washington, D.C. Bicycle Tours

Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.

Duration: 3 hours

This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world-famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington, D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability – and the cherry blossoms – disappear!

Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour

Duration: 3 hours (4 miles)

Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water.

Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.

Duration: 3 hours

Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D.C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents, Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route (路线) make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing.

Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour

Duration: 3 hours (7 miles)

Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington, D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capitol Hill and the National Mall. Frequent stops are made for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights.

21. Which tour do you need to book in advance?

A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.

B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour.

C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington,

D.C.

D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour.

22. What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour?

A. Meet famous people.

B. Go to a national park.

C. Visit well-known museums.

D. Enjoy interesting stories.

23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide?

A. City maps.

B. Cameras.

C. Meals.

D. Safety lights.

Good Morning Britain’s Susanna Reid is used to grilling guests on the sofa every morning, but she is cooking

up a storm in her latest role – showing families how to prepare delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget.

In Save Money: Good Food, she visits a different home each week and with the help of chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food waste, while preparing recipes for under ￡5 per family a day. And the Good Morning Britain presenter says she’s been able to put a lot of what she’s learnt into practice in her own home, preparing meals for sons, Sam, 14, Finn, 13, and Jack, 11.

“We love Mexican churros, so I buy them on my phone from my local Mexican takeaway restaurant,” she explains. “I pay ￡5 for a portion (一份), but Matt makes them for 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and oil. Everybody can buy takeaway food, but sometimes we’re not aware how cheaply we can make this food ourselves.”

The eight-part series (系列节目), Save Money: Good Food, follows in the footsteps of ITV’s Save Money: Good Health, which gave viewers advice on how to get value from the vast range of health products on the market.

With food our biggest weekly household expense, Susanna and Matt spend time with a different family each week. In tonight’s Easter special they come to the aid of a family in need of some delicious inspiration on a budget. The team transforms the family’s long weekend of celebration with less expensive but still tasty recipes.

24. What do we know about Susanna Reid?

A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests.

B. She has started a new programme.

C. She dislikes working early in the morning.

D. She has had a tight budget for her family.

25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna?

A. He buys cooking materials for her.

B. He prepares food for her kids.

C. He assists her in cooking matters.

D. He invites guest families for her.

26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4?

A. Summarize the previous paragraphs.

B. Provide some advice for the readers.

C. Add some background information.

D. Introduce a new topic for discussion.

27. What can be a suitable title for the text?

A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart

B. Balancing Our Daily Diet

C. Making Yourself a Perfect Chef

D. Cooking Well for Less

Languages have been coming and going for thousands of years, but in recent times there has been less coming and a lot more going. When the world was still populated by hunter-gatherers, small, tightly knit (联系) groups developed their own patterns of speech independent of each other. Some language experts believe that 10,000 years ago, when the world had just five to ten million people, they spoke perhaps 12,000 languages between them.

Soon afterwards, many of those people started settling down tobecome farmers, and their languages too became more settled and fewer in number. In recent centuries, trade, industrialisation, the development of the nation-state and the spread of universal compulsory education, especially globalisation and better communications in the past few decades, all have caused many languages to disappear, and dominant languages such as English, Spanish and Chinese are increasingly taking over.

At present, the world has about 6,800 languages. The distribution of these languages is hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have relatively few languages, often spoken by many people, while hot, wet zones have lots, often spoken by small numbers. Europe has only around 200 languages; the Americas about 1,000; Africa 2,400; and Asia and the Pacific perhaps 3,200, of which Papua New Guinea alone accounts for well over 800. The median number (中位数) of speakers is a mere 6,000, which means that half the world’s languages are spoken by

fewer people than that.

Already well over 400 of the total of 6,800 languages are close to extinction (消亡), with only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busuu in Cameroon (eight remaining speakers), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apache in the United States (two or three) or Wadjigu in Australia (one, with a question-mark): none of these seems to have much chance of survival.

28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times?

A. They developed very fast.

B. They were large in number.

C. They had similar patterns.

D. They were closely connected.

29. Which of the following best explains “dominant” underlined in paragraph 2?

A. Complex.

B. Advanced.

C. Powerful.

D. Modern.

30. How many languages are spoken by less than 6,000 people at present?

A. About 6,800.

B. About 3,400.

C. About 2,400.

D. About 1,200.

31. What is the main idea of the text?

A. New languages will be created.

B. People’s lifestyles are reflected in languages.

C. Human development results in fewer languages.

D. Geography determines language evolution.

We may think we’re a culture that gets rid of our worn technology at the first sight of something shiny and new, but a new study shows that we keep using our old devices (装置) well after they go out of style. That’s bad news for the environment – and our wallets – as these outdated devices consume much more energy than the newer ones that do the same things.

To figure out how much power these devices are using, Callie Babbitt and her colleagues at the Rochester Institute of Technology in New York tracked the environmental costs for each product throughout its life – from when its minerals are mined to when we stop using the device. This method provided a readout for how home energy use has evolved since the early 1990s. Devices were grouped by generation. Desktop computers, basic mobile phones, and box-set TVs defined 1992. Digital cameras arrived on the scene in 1997. And MP3 players, smart phones, and LCD TVs entered homes in 2002, before tablets and e-readers showed up in 2007.

As we accumulated more devices, however, we didn’t throw out our old ones.“The living-room television is replaced and gets planted in the kids’ room, and suddenly one day, you have a TV in every room of the house,” said one researcher. The average number of electronic devices rose from four per household in 1992 to 13 in 2007. We’re not just keeping these old devices– we continue to use them. According to the analysis of Babbitt’s team, old desktop monitors and box TVs with cathode ray tubes are the worst devices with their energy consumption and contribution to greenhouse gas emissions (排放) more than doubling during the 1992 to 2007 window.

So what’s the solution (解决方案)? The team’s data only went up to 2007, but the researchers also explored what would happen if consumers replaced old products with new electronics that serve more than one function, such as a tablet for word processing and TV viewing. They found that more on-demand entertainment viewing on tablets instead of TVs and desktop computers could cut energy consumption by 44%.

32. What does the author think of new devices?

A. They are environment-friendly.

B. They are no better than the old.

C. They cost more to use at home.

D. They go out of style quickly.

33. Why did Babbitt’s team conduct the research?

A. To reduce the cost of minerals.

B. To test the life cycle of a product.

C. To update consumers on new technology.

D. To find out electricity consumption of the devices.

34. Which of the following uses the least energy?

A. The box-set TV.

B. The tablet.

C. The LCD TV.

D. The desktop computer.

35. What does the text suggest people do about old electronic devices?

A. Stop using them.

B. Take them apart.

C. Upgrade them.

D. Recycle them.

第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Color is fundamental in home design –something you’ll always have in every room. A grasp of how to manage color in your spaces is one of the first steps to creating rooms you’ll love to live in. Do you want a roo m that’s full of life? Professional? Or are you just looking for a place to relax after a long day? 36 , color is the key to making a room feel the way you want it to feel.

Over the years, there have been a number of different techniques to help designers approach this important point. 37 , they can get a little complex. But good news is that there’re really only three kinds of decisions you need to make about color in your home: the small ones, the medium ones, and the large ones.

38 . They’re the little spots of color like throw pillows, mirrors and baskets that most of us use to add visual interest to our rooms. Less tiring than painting your walls and less expensive than buying a colorful sofa, small color choices bring with them the significant benefit of being easily changeable.

Medium color choices are generally furniture pieces such as sofas, dinner tables or bookshelves. 39 . They require a bigger commitment than smaller ones, and they have a more powerful effect on the feeling of a space.

The large color decisions in your rooms concern the walls, ceilings, and floors. Whether you’re looking at wallpaper or paint, the time, effort and relative expense put into it are significant. 40 .

A. While all of them are useful

B. Whatever you’re looking for

C. I f you’re experimenting with a color

D. Small color choices are the ones we’re most familiar with

E. It’s not really a good idea to use too many small color pieces

F. So it pays to be sure, because you want to get it right the first time

G. Color choices in this range are a step up from the small ones in two major ways

第三部分语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

During my second year at the city college, I was told that the education department was offering a “free” course, called Thinking Chess, for three credits. I 41 the idea of taking the class because, after all, who doesn’t want to 42 a few dollars? More than that, I’d always wanted to learn chess. And, even if I weren’t 43 enough about free credits, news about our 44 was appealing enough to me. He was an international grandmaster, which 45 I would be learning from one of the game’s46 . I could hardly wait to 47 him.

Maurice Ashley was kind and smart, a former graduate returning to teach, and this 48 was no game for him; he meant business. In his introduction, he made it 49

that our credits would be hard-earned. In order to 50 the class, among other criteria, we had to write a paper on how we plan to 51 what we would learn in class to our future professions and, 52 , to our lives. I managed to get an A in that 53 and learned life lessons that have served me well beyond the 54 .

Ten years after my chess class with Ashley, I’m still putting to use what he 55 me: “The absolute most important 56 that you learn when you play chess is how to make good 57 . On every single move you have to 58 a situation, process what your opponent (对手) doing and 59 the best move from among all your options.” These words still ring true today in my 60 as a journalist.

41. A. put forward B. jumped at C. tried out D. turned down

42. A. waste B. earn C. save D. pay

43. A. excited B. worried C. moved D. tired

44. A. title B. competitor C. textbook D. instructor

45. A. urged B. demanded C. held D. meant

46. A. fastest B. easiest C. best D. rarest

47. A. interview B. meet C. challenge D. beat

48. A. chance B. qualification C. honor D. job

49. A. real B. perfect C. clear D. possible

50. A. attend B. pass C. skip D. observe

51. A. add B. expose C. apply D. compare

52. A. eventually B. naturally C. directly D. normally

53. A. game B. presentation C. course D. experiment

54. A. criterion B. classroom C. department D. situation

55. A. taught B. wrote C. questioned D. promised

56. A. fact B. step C. manner D. skill

57. A. grades B. decisions C. impressions D. comments

58. A. analyze B. describe C. rebuild D. control

59. A. announce B. signal C. block D. evaluate

60. A. role B. desire C. concern D. behavior

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

According to a review of evidence in a medical journal, runners live three years 61

(long) than non-runners. You don’t have to run fast or for long 62 (see) the benefit. You may drink, smoke, be overweight and still reduce your risk of 63 (die) early by running.

While running regularly can’t make you live forever, the review says it 64 (be) more effective at lengthening life 65 walking, cycling or swimming. Two of the authors of the review also made a study published in 2014 66 showed a mere five to 10 minutes a day of running reduced the risk of heart disease and early deaths from all 67 (cause).

The best exercise is one that you enjoy and will do. But otherwise … it’s probably running. To avoid knee pain, you can run on soft surfaces, do exercises to 68 (strength) your leg muscles (肌肉), avoid hills and get good running shoes. Running is cheap, easy and it’s always 69 (energy). If you are time poor, you need run for only half the time to get the same benefits as other sports, so perhaps we should all give 70 a try.

第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1．每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

2．只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。

During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit

my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were

living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when

I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken. They also

had a small pond which they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned

quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their life had improved. At the end of

our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but he agreed.

第二节书面表达（满分25分）

假定你是李华，你的新西兰朋友Terry将去中国朋友家做客，发邮件向你询问有关习俗。请你回复邮件，内容包括：

1．到达时间；

2．合适的礼物；

3．餐桌礼仪。

注意：

1．词数100左右；

2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

**************************************************************************

考试机构工作人员注意：以下内容不能印在试卷上。

请将“Dear Terry,”按下面格式打印在答题卡上相应区域。请将“Best, Li Hua”按下面格式放在底端。

2019年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

英语试题参考答案

第一部分听力

1. B

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. A

6. B

7. A

8. B

9. C 10. C

11. A 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. C

16. B 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. A

第二部分阅读理解

21. A 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. C

26. C 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. B

31. C 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. A

36. B 37. A 38. D 39. G 40. F

第三部分语言知识运用

41. B 42. C 43. A 44. D 45. D

46. C 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. B

51. C 52. A 53. C 54. B 55. A

56. D 57. B 58. A 59. D 60. A

61. longer 62. to see 63. dying 64. is 65. than

66. that/which 67. causes 68. strengthen 69. energetic 70. it/running

第四部分写作

第一节

During my last winter holiday, I went to∧countryside with my father to visit

the

my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were

found

living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when

other

I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken. They also

there chickens

had a small pond∧which they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned

in或where

quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their life had improved. At the end of

selling happy

our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but he agreed.

and

第二节（略）

2019年高考英语全国卷1

徐老师 2019年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国卷1）英语注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。例：How much is the shirt? A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15. 答案是C。 1. Where does this conversation take place? A. In a classroom. B. In a hospital. C. In a museum. 2. What does Jack want to do? A. Take fitness classes. B. Buy a pair of gym shoes. C. Change his work schedule. 3. What are the speakers talking about? A. What to drink. B. Where to meet. C. When to leave. 4. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Colleges. B. Classmates. C. Strangers. 5. Why is Emily mentioned in the conversation? 第1页

2014年高考英语试题及答案全国卷2

2014年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试新课标II卷英语本试卷分第I卷（选择题）和第II卷（非选择题）两部分。考试结束后，将本试卷和答案卡一并交回。注意事项： 1．答第I卷前考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．选出每小题答案前，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号框,不能答在本试卷上，否则无效。第一部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分40分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项。并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑． A Arriving in Sydney on his own from India, my husband, Rashid, stayed in a hotel for a short time while looking for a short time while looking for a house for me and our children.

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